SAIL Sample Question Papers Download MT Management Trainee Exam

SAIL Sample Question Papers Download MT Management Trainee  Exam

Who invented "THERMOMETER"?
Ans: Fahrenheit

Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity?

Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurrence of numbers ending with 9 is?
a:1/10
b:9/10
c:1
d:0

Si,Ge lie in ……..block of periodic table
a: III
b: V
c: IVA(ANS)
d: IV B

some equation was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency

Which Filter is used for passing only high frequency
a: Ladder
b. Crystal

In Zener breakdown is proportional to
Ans Negative coefficient of temperature

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SAIL MT Previous Year Papers Download www.sail.co.in

SAIL MT Previous Year Papers Download www.sail.co.in

1.) Terminal colors of Rainbow?
a: Violet&Red

2.)First lady in "Indian National Congress"?
a: Indira Gandhi
b: Sarogini Naidu etc

3.)First Nuclear plant in INDIA is situated in
a : Trombay
b:  Nellore etc

4.)2 capacitances are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what will be the value of individual capacitance.

5.)Who invented "THERMOMETER"?
Ans: Fahrenheit

6.)Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity?

7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurrence of numbers ending with 9 is?
a:1/10
b:9/10
c:1
d:0

8.)Si,Ge lie in ……..block of periodic table
a: III
b: V
c: IVA(ANS)
d: IV B

9.)some equation was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency

10.)Which Filter is used for passing only high frequency
a: Ladder
b. Crystal

11.)In Zener breakdown is proportional to
Ans Negative coefficient of temperature

12.)If water is heated from 0degree to 10 degree effect on volume
a: increase steadily
b: remain same
c: decrease steadily

13.)If we dig EARTH FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then effect on its velocity
a :increase continuously
b: First increase and become Zero in center
c. It Will Start Oscillate

14.)Dandi march was related t0 ……..
a: Salt
b: sugar etc

15.)Radiation pattern of loop antenna
a: cardioids
b. semicircular
c. circle
d. none

16.) "DENMARK" lie in which continent

17.)Cooks island is situated in which continent?

18.)Range of AM Signal?

19.)In an Electrolyte if rod is immersed then mass on rod will be proportional to
Ans: current passed in it

20.)Largest unit in energy

21.) Spelling check of SATELLITE

22.)Plural of "DIBIYA"IN HINDI

23.)Find out Sarvnam

24.)RADDISH is a
a: modified root
b: bulb
c; stem

25.) X Rays are …….Rays
Ans emw

26.) ass:bray::sheep:bleat



SAIL Latest Job Interview Placement Paper (Technical, Reasoning, English & Aptitude)



Questions:
1.where does a body have least weight?
a) at the equator
b) at the poles
c) at earth’s center
d) none of these

2. what is the millman’s theorem?

3. what happens if a dc motor is fed an ac signal?

4. calculate electron mobility.

5. power MOSFET is voltage controlled or current controlled?

6. if u want a 640 k RAM, what specification should u specify in the drive?

7. max efficiency of a class a amplifier?

8.what r resistors in IC made of?

9. 6 girls and 6 bos sitting randomly in a line. what probability of girls being together?

10.what is the prob. of two friends having birthdays in same month?

11. (D^2 + 4)y= kx what if PI?

12. lim x-infinity sinx/x

13. express x/(x+1) as taylor’s series

14.principle of jet engine

15. why hydraulic systems used ina aircrafts instead of electrical?

16. steel + ? = corrosion-resistant material?

17. what happens to speed of em wave as frequency increases?

18. which char. of em wave does not change when it travels from one mdium to another?

19. circuit given. find attenuation in db.

20. circuit given. how much feedback?

21. (s-1)/(s+1) is high pass filter/ low pass filter?

22. fastest logic family among rtl, dtl, ttl?

23. in common emitter config. change in iC on changing vBE?

24. what happens if gate voltage of an ON scr is decreased?

25. fermi level change with temperature in n type semiconductor?

26. mosfet has threshold voltage 1v when n+ polysilicon is used in gate. what is threshold voltage when polysilicon used is of n+ type?

27. simple ckts using zener diode.

28. what is the p+ substrate in an isolated pn junction ic connected to?

29. opamp circuit given. open loop gain=100. closed loop gain=?

30. which type of parameters( h/y/z) suitable in particular application?

31. given parallel LC ckt. find angle between currents in branches at resonance.

32. what is Q of series RLC ckt? (voltage gain/ admttance etc.)

33. resonant freq of parallel RLC ckt. ?

34. thin metal foil inserted between capacitor plates. foil connected to one plate. change in capacitance?

35. ques on reflection of em wave at air= dielectric interface. dlc const=9

36. what is brewster’s angle?

37. why microwave freq not used for ionospheric propagation?

38. uhf range?

39. freq range used in satellite comunication?

40. which ionospheric bands used for commercial purposes?

41. question on transmission line impedance matching?

42. flip- flop d, t 43. convert 32 k pulses to 1 hz pulses using decade counters etc.

44. ques on sets and relations

45. integration

46. rank of matrix

100 technical questions in 1 hr. +1/-.25

(Section 2): section 2 consists of:

a. general awareness (history, geography, civics, economics- basic on india)
b. english (passage, synonym, antonym, grmmatical error detection etc)
c. reasoning
d. apti all sections’ and all parts of sec 2′s cut-off should be cleared.

Sample Paper:

1) A 2 digit number is formed by either subtracting 16 from 8 times the sum of the digits or by adding 20 to 22 times the difference between difference of digits.find the number?

2) It takes 16 days for 24 men to plough 15 acres of land,the how many days would be required for 32 men to plough 30 acres of land?

3) A Work can be done by 8 men and 10 women in 25 days, the same work can be done by 10 children and 5 women . In how many days 2 children and 3 men can do the same work?

4) One man or two women or three boys can do a work in 44 days then one man, one women and one boy together can finish the same work in -days?

5) 4 years from now ,prakash’s age will be 4 times his son’s age.12 years from now,he will be 2.5 times his son’s age.find their present ages?

6) In how many ways can a lock be opened if that lock has three digit number lock if
i) the last digit is 9
ii) and sum of the first two digits is less than or equal to the last digit.

7) If the numerator and denomenator of a certain fraction are increased by 2,the fraction becomes 3/5.If numerator and denomenator are increased by 1,it becomes 1/2.find the fraction?

There are 76 persons. 53 can read hindu,46 can read times,39 can read deccan and 15 can read all.If 22 can rea
d hindu and deccan and 23 can read deccan and times then what is the number of persons who read only times and hindu ?

9) In pure milk if 20% replaced by water and in this again 20% is replaced by water and again 20% is replaced by water then what is the proportion of milk in that mixture?

10) After 10 years A will be twice the age of B before 10 years.and now if the difference is 9 years between them then what is the age of B after 10 years?

11) Praveen’s present age is twice that of Mahesh’s age 4 yrs ago.Praveen would be twice as old as Mahesh today.Find sum of their present ages?

12) The cost of 2 balls,3 bats and 8 pair of gloves is 2500.While cost of 4 balls,5 bats and 10 pair of gloves is 4000.Find cost of each bat?

13) From a 20 l mixutre conatining milk and water in the ratio 3:5, 4 litres of mixture is replaced with 4 litres of water .Then what is the final ratio of milk and water?

14) The cost of 4 apples is equal to the selling price of 6 apples.find the profit/loss percentage?

15) Nikhil bought 12 kg of cashew for Rs.360.He was forced to sell them at a loss of as much money as the selling price of 3kg.find his selling price?

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Sail Management Trainee Question Paper With Answers Download

Sail Management Trainee Question Paper With Answers Download

SAIL MT Exam Reasoning Previous Paper With Solution

1. How many cards of E type are inserted in brown envelopes?
* Nil
* One
* Answer is: Two
* Three
* Data inadequate

2. Which of the following combinations of the type of cards and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of yellow-coloured envelopes?
* A-2, B-I, C-2
* B-I, C-2. D-2
* A-2, E-l, D-2
* Answer is: A-3, B-1 C-1
* None of these

3. Which of the following combinations of types of cards and the number of cards and colour of envelope is definitely correct?
* Answer is: C-2, D-1, E-2, Brown
* C-1,D-2,E-2,Brown
* B-2, D-2, A-I, Red
* A-2,B-2,C-1,Yellow
* None of these

4. Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of E type cards?
* Red-2, Brown-l
* Red-1,Yellow-2
* Red-2, Yellow- 1
* Yellow-1,Brown-2
* Answer is: None of these

5. “Forty per cent of our products are sold in rural area, fifty-three per cent are sold in semi-urban area, sixty per cent of employees are from rural area.” Which of the following statements is definitely true?
* The company’s products are purchased only by its employees and their family.
* The company does not desire to recruit urban employees.
* The company’s products are required in big urban cities and metro areas.
* The company holds approximately 90% of the market share in its product line.
* Answer is: None of these

6. “We do not advertise, our product speaks for itself.”— Statement of manufacturer of two-wheeler ‘BJA’.
Which of the following, if true, would support and strengthen this statement?
(i) The prices of BJA two-wheelers are on higher side.
(ii) ‘BJA’ has won award for Quality Control Systems.
(iii) The BJA two-wheeler is sleek-looking and has good colours.
(iv) The salaries of BJA employees are better than government services.
* Only (i) and (ii)
* Answer is: Only (ii) and (iii)
* Only (iii) and (iv)
* Only (i), (ii) and (iiii)
* None of these

Directions (Q. 7-13): Read the following in formation carefully and answer the following questions:
Following are the criteria for organizing interview of such candidates as have been selected from the promotion to officer’s grade from assistant grade in the PRS Industrial Group Limited:
The candidate to be called for interview must:
(i) be a graduate with minimum 50% marks.
(ii) have minimum five years’ experience in the clerical cadre job.
(iii) have obtained at least ‘C’ ratings in performance (speed of work) and the quality of work each during the last three years. For this five ratings A, 8, C, D and E-have been created on the basis of ”Performance Appraisal Report” with the lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of E.
(iv) have obtained at least ‘D’ ratings in the approach of work (dependability) and in the flexibility of work each for his/her works in the last three years. For this, seven ratings A, B,C, D, E, F and G have been formulated on the basis of “Performance Appraisal Report” with lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of G.
However, in case of a candidate who fulfills all other criteria EXCEPT

(a)(i) above, but has passed Graduation Exam and has got ‘E’ ratings in the approach of work in the last three years, may be referred to the Assistant Manager (Personnel).
(b) (ii) above, but has experience of three years in clerical cadre job and has got at least ‘D’ ratings in the quality of work for his/her works in the last three years, may be referred to the Deputy Manager (Personnel).

Based on these criteria and information provided against each candidate, decide the course of action. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided are not adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be “Data inadequate”. All the candidates fulfill the criterion of age. V Give answer
(1) if data are inadequate (2) if not to be selected (3) if selected for the interview (4) if case is referred to the Assistant Manager (5) if case is referred to the Deputy Manager

7. Mohammed Sheikh is a brilliant post-graduate in Science and has secured 63% and5 marks in graduation and post graduation respectively. He has ‘E’ grade for dependability and flexibility inPerformance Appraisal Report for last four years. He has got ‘C’ rating for quality of work and speed of work. He joined the Bank four years ago.
* data are inadequate
* Answer is: not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

8. Kiran Bala is a young lady and laborious assistant who joined this organisation six years ago after passing B. Commerce Exam. The ratings being given to her for the last 4 years are ‘D’ and ‘C’ respectively for quality of work and speed of work. She is one of the leaders of the clerks. She has got ‘D’ ratings for flexibility of work for the last 5 years.
* Answer is: data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

9. Marks details missing Mandar Rhave has passed his Graduation in Science and Diploma in Business Management with 58% and 62% respectively. lie is good player of chess. His rating on PAR are ‘D’ for ‘dependability’ and ‘flexibility’ whereas he has ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘speed of work’ for the last 4 years.
* Answer is: data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

10. Joining Date missing Anubhav Rege is with the company for last seven years. For the last 4 years he has ‘D’ rating for ‘quality of work’, ‘C’ rating for ‘speed of work’, ‘F’ rating for ‘dependability’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘flexibility’. His marks in graduation and post-graduation are 46% and 50% respectively. He is very fond of cultural activities
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* Answer is: case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

12. Shivasundaram has got ‘D’ rating since he joined the bank three years ago on quality of work, speed of work, dependability and flexibility. He has passed his graduation and post graduation with 52% and 47% marks respectively. Shivasundaram is a popular employee because of his social activities.
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* Answer is: case is referred to the Deputy Manager

12. Seema Mukhi is working in the clerical cadre for last five-and-a-half years. She has got ‘D’ and ‘E’ ratings respectively on ‘flexibility’ and ‘dependability’ and ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘speed of work’ for last four years. She has obtained 55% and 48% at SSC and graduation respectively.
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* selected for the interview
* Answer is: case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

13. Anthony Cruz is a sportsman and is Vice-Captain of cricket team of PRS Industries Ltd. He is working with the company for last seven years in theclerical cadre. The rating being given to him for the last 3 years is ‘C’ and ‘D’ grade for quality of work and speed of work respectively. Similarly, he has ‘D’ grade for dependability and flexibility in PAR. He is an Arts graduate with 54% of marks
* data are inadequate
* not to be selected
* Answer is: selected for the interview
* case is referred to the Assistant Manager
* case is referred to the Deputy Manager

Directions (Q. 14-18): In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3) (4) and (5) is the correct answer.

14. Statement: “A rare opportunity to be a professional while you are at home..— An advertisement for computer-literate housewives by a computer company
Assumptions: I. Some housewives simultaneously desire to become professional.
IL Computer industry is growing at a fast pace.
III. It is possible to be a professional as well as a housewife.
* Only I and II
* Only II and III
* Answer is: Only I and III
* Only II
* None of these

15. Statement: India’s economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased industrial and vehicular pollution.
Assumptions: I. Pollution is a part of industrial society.
II. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth.
Ill. A country desires economic growth with manageable side-effects.
* only I
* Only II
* Answer is: Only I and III
* Only III
* None of these

16. Statement: Efforts to develop technologies more appropriate to the needs of the poorest sections of society need to be further intensified. Assumptions: I: Nothing is impossible if proper efforts are made. II. Technology needs are different for different sections of society. III It is possible to develop appropriate technologies for various economic sections of the society.
* Only I
* Only III
* Only II
* Answer is: Both II and III
* None of these

17. Statement: “We have the distinction of being the only company in India as well as the second in the world to have won an ISO 9002 quality certification in our line of business”- Statement of company X’s Chairman. Assumptions: I. There were not many companies in the line of business of Company ‘X’. II Getting ISO 9002 in the line of business of Company “X’ is not easy. III. The company ‘X’ desires to expand its business.
* Only I
* Only II
* Only III
* Answer is: Only II and III
* None of these

18. Its Difficult to get and Chairman is highlighting this fact only to expand business Statement: Co-operative social relationships contribute to develop individual potentialities. Assumptions: I Every society desires to prosper. II. Individuals desire to develop their potential. III It is possible to create and maintain co-operative environment in a society.
* Answer is: Only II and III
* Only II and I
* Only I and III
* Only II
* None of these

19. In a school class there are 65 children boys outnumber the girls by 21. How many girls are in the class .
* 21
* Answer is: 22
* 26
* 28
* None of these

20. John had appointment in Delhi .He Reached there on Sunday. He found that he was three days earlier than the meeting day. If he had reached on the following Friday how many days late would he has been.

* one day
* Answer is: two days
* three days
* four days
* None of these

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SAIL Question Papers With Answers Previous Years www.sail.co.in

SAIL Question Papers With Answers Previous Years www.sail.co.in

(1) Which type of motor is used is used for self balanced machines
(a)dc servo motors (b)dc shunt motors (c)ac servo motors (d)ac shunt motors.
(2) Which type of motors has two types of constants in it
(a)Reluctance motors (b)Pole shaded motors (c)dc shunt motors (d)ac shunt motors.
(3) Which type of power plant requires maximum expenditure
(a)Hydel power plants (b)Nuclear power plants (c)Thermal power plants (d)Gas based power plants.
(4) Base load of a power station stands for
(a)2-4 hours/day (b)4-8 hours/day(c)8-12 hours/day (d)12-24hours/day
(5) Bode plot is used to
(a)analyze lead-lag points (b)know maximum stability (c)know relative stability(d)know absolute stability
(6) A wire is placed on the top of a transmission line to
(a)surge high voltage (b)acts as neutral (c)acts as a transmission wire (d)acts as ground wire.
APTI+G.K was simple. For more R.S AGARWAL However some of the questions which I remember are as follows :-
(1) 1/0.05 equals
(a)5 (b)20 (c)50 (d)100
(2) If the radius of a circle is increased by 100% how will then the area increase
(a)100% (b)200% (c)300% (d)400%
(3) If the length, height and breadth of a cuboid is increased by 100%,200%&300% then the volume of the cuboid will increase by (a)3 times (b)6 times (c)12 times (d)24 times
(4) A shopkeeper buys 30 pens .He sells 27 pen at the marked price of the 30 pens. Then what is his profit
(a)31/3% (b)23/6% (c)10% (d)111/9%
(5) After seeing the picture person says his mother is the wife of my father’s son.Then how is the person in the picture and the person is related?
(a)Nephew (b)Uncle (c)Grandfather (d)Grandson
(6) A can do work in 30 days,B can do it in 40 days. A and B started the work and then A leaved it after 14 days then how much time did it take for B to complete the work
(a)5 days (b)6 days (c)3 days(d)2 days
(7) When did the Burma was separated from India?
(a)1937 (b)1905 (c)1912 (d)1926.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ENGLISH ANLOGY HINDI-GRAMMER PHYSICS /CHE(BASIC)
FEW QUE

1.) Terminal colours of Rainbow? a: Violet&Red
2.)First lady in INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS? a: Indira gandhi b: sarogini naidu etc
3.)First Nuclear plant in INDIA is situated in a :trombay b: nellore etc
4.)2 capacitances are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what will be the value of indivisual capacitance.
5.)Who invented THERMOMETER? ANS: Farenheit
6.)Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity?
7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurance of numbers ending with 9 is? a:1/10 b:9/10 c:1 d:0
8.)Si,Ge lie in ........block of periodic table a: III b: V c: IVA(ANS) D: IV B
9.)some eqn was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency
10.)Which Filter is used for passing ONLY HIGH frequency a: LADDER B. crystal
11.)In Zener breakdown is proportional to Ans -ive coefficient of temperature
12.)If water is heated from 0degree to 10 degree effect on volume a: increase steadily b: remain same c: decrease steadily
13.)if we dig EARTH FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then efffect on its velocity a :increase continously b: First increase and become Zero in center c. It Will Start Oscillate
14.)Dandi march was related t0 ........ a: Salt b: sugar etc
15.)Radiation pattern of loop antenna a: cardioid b. semicircular c. circle d. none
16.)DENMARK lie in which continent
17.)Cooks island is situated in which continent?
18.)Range of AM Signal?
19.)In an Electrolyte if rod is immersed then mass on rod will be proportional to a: current passed in it
20.)largest unit in energy
21.)spelling check of SATELLITE
22.)plural of "DIBIYA"IN HINDI
23.)Sarvnam chatiye
24.)RADDISH is a a: modified root b: bulb c; stem
25.)X Rays are .......Rays Ans emw
26.)ass:bray::sheep BLEAT
27IN HINDI PEHLE JANMA(AGRAJ,ARGAJA/AAGRAJETC)
28.)LORD SHANKAR IS RELATED TO originaetor of ...........river
29;).........is also called JALDHAR
30) fsk is used in a: telegraphy b: telephony c :radio transmission etc

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SAIL Trainee 2010 Question Papers download www.sail.co.in

SAILTrainee 2010 Question Papers download www.sail.co.in

Q.1) Which of the following metals was not known to the Indus people?

(1) tin (2) copper
(3) iron (4) lead
Q.2) Which one of the following emergencies can be declared by the President on his own?
(1) emergency due to external aggression or internal disturbances
(2) emergency due to failure of the constitutional machinery in a state.
(3) emergency due to threat to the financial stability or credit of India.
(4) None of these.
Q.3) Which of the following is not an objective of the Monetary Policy of RBI?
(1) Boost economic development
(2) Direct credit in desirable direction
(3) Control inflationary pressure
(4) Ensure social justice
Q.4) One of the disadvantages of the Wholesale Price Index in India is that:
(1) It does not cover the services sector.
(2) It is not available for individual commodities.
(3) It is available only on monthly basis.
(4) It is available only at constant prices.
Q.5) The National Chemical Laboratory is situated in:
(1) New Delhi (2) Bangalore
(3) Pune (4) Chennai
Q.6) The most commonly used metal in the pure form or as an alloy in domestic appliances is:
(1) aluminum (2) iron
(3) copper (4) zinc
Q.7) The process in which solid substance, on being heated, changes directly into the gaseous form known
as:
(1) dissociation (2) dissolution
(3) sublimation (4) evaporation
Q.8) Match the following:
List I List II
a. Surya Sen 1. Communist Party of India
b. NM Joshi 2. Indian Republican Army
c. PC Joshi 3. Radical President of Congress
d. SC Bose 4. All India Trade Union Federation
a b c d
(1) 2 4 1 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 2 4 3 1
Q.9) The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is:
(1) ethylene (2) ethane
(3) carbon dioxide (4) acetylene
Q.10) In human systems, vitamins cannot:
(1) help in digestion (2) help in metabolizing drugs
(3) help in growth (4) supply energy
Q.11) A person weighs more in a life, which is:
(1) moving up with a constant velocity.
(2) moving down with a constant velocity.
(3) accelerating upward.
(4) accelerating downward.
Q.12) With what is ‘blue revolution’ associated?
(1) agriculture (2) iron and steel industry
(3) irrigation (4) fishing
Q.13) The excavation in the Indus Valley have pushed the antiquity of Indian History to:
(1) 5000 BC (2) 4000 BC
(3) 2500 BC (4) 1000 BC
Q.14) What distinguishes economic growth from economic development is that the latter implies:
(1) an increase in per capita income
(2) changes in institutions and attitudes
(3) concern for ecology and environment
(4) All of the above.
Q.15) What of the following figures has the longest perimeter?
(1) a square of side 10 cms
(2) a rectangle of sides 12 cms and 9 cms
(3) a circle of radius 7 cms
(4) a rhombus of side 9 cms
Q.16) Match the following Viceroys with the event and occurred during their respective tenures:
List I List II
a. Wavell 1. First demand for Pakistan
b. Reading 2. The Moplah Revolt
c. Willington 3. Simla Conference
d. Linlithgow 4. Communal Award
a b c d
(1) 3 2 4 1
(2) 4 1 3 2
(3) 3 4 2 1
(4) 1 2 4 3
Q.17) The most literate union territory in India is:
(1) Delhi (2) Puducherry
(3) Chandigarh (4) Lakshadweep
Q.18) The bacteria responsible for ‘nitrogen fixation’ is found in the roots of:
(1) grass (2) citrus plants
(3) leguminous plants (4) neem tree
Q.19) A chemical reaction that takes place with the evolution of heat is called a/an:
(1) reversible reaction (2) endothermic reaction
(3) thermal reaction (4) exothermic reaction
Q.20) Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List I (People) List II (State)
a. Lepcha 1. Uttaranchal
b. Maria 2. Sikkim
c. Urali 3. Chattisgarh
d. Khasa 4. Kerala
a b c d
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 3 4 2 1
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 3 2 4 1
Q.21) Antarctic Treaty was signed in:
(1) 1960 (2) 1954
(3) 1958 (4) 1959
Q.22) The concept of Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in population means:
(1) the average number of children born to a women during her lifetime.
(2) the average number of children born to an adult male during his lifetime
(3) the average number of children born in family
(4) the average rate of growth of population
Q.23) Consider the following statements:
(a) Human Development Report is an authoritative annul publication brought out by the World Bank.
(b) It measures longevity by life expectancy at birth.
(c) Knowledge is measured by adult literacy rate.
(d) Standard of living is measured by GDP per capita (US $ PPP).
Which of the above statements is not correct?
(1) (a) (2) (b)
(3) (c) (4) (d)
Q.24) The most abundant source of iron is:
(1) milk (2) green vegetables
(3) eggs (4) beans
Q.25) The latitude and longitude of the two cities A and B are as follows:
A B
Latitude 120N 210N
Longitude 800-30’E 90-30’W
When the clock in city A shows 0800 hours UTC, what will be the time (UTC) in city B?
(1) 0200 (2) 0230
(3) 0100 (4) 0238
ANSWERS
1. (3)
2. (4)
3. (4)
4. (1)
5. (2)
6. (1)
7. (3)
8. (1)
9. (4)
10. (4)
11. (3)
12. (4)
13. (3)
14. (2)
15. (3)
16. (1)
17. (4)
18. (3)
19. (4)
20. (3)
21. (4)
22. (1)
23. (1)
24. (2)
25. (1)

What is the main different between distribution transformer and power transformer?

Where manning formula used

what is the differance between item category and material type ?

When a square wave is applied to primary of a transformer then what will be output

wave form of secondary ?

what are the warehouse reserch? and pocess of warehouse research?

What is the rating of HT SUBSTATION and LT SUBSTATION?

which of the following rivers does not form any delta T ITS MOUTH? Cauvery,

Mahanadi, Godawari, Tapti

How much is the minimum marks for CIVIL judge interview in MPPSC. where i can

get rules in this regard documented?

what are the uses of graphite electrode in various field.

what is the use of "fg" command ?

what are %TYPE and %ROWTYPE? what is the difference?

1.where does a body have least weight?
a) at the equator
b) at the poles
c) at earth's center
d) none of these

2. what is the millman's theorem?

3. what happens if a dc motor is fed an ac signal?

4. calculate electron mobility.

5. power MOSFET is voltage controlled or current controlled?

6. if u want a 640 k RAM, what specification should u specify in the drive?

7. max efficiency of a class a amplifier?

8.what r resistors in IC made of?

9. 6 girls and 6 bos sitting randomly in a line. what probability of girls being
together?

10.what is the prob. of two friends having birthdays in same month?

11. (D^2 + 4)y= kx what if PI?

12. lim x-infinity sinx/x

13. express x/(x+1) as taylor's series

14.principle of jet engine

15. why hydraulic systems used ina aircrafts instead of electrical?

16. steel + ? = corrosion-resistant material?

17. what happens to speed of em wave as frequency increases?

18. which char. of em wave does not change when it travels from one mdium to
another?

19. circuit given. find attenuation in db.

20. circuit given. how much feedback?

21. (s-1)/(s+1) is high pass filter/ low pass filter?

22. fastest logic family among rtl, dtl, ttl?

23. in common emitter config. change in iC on changing vBE?

24. what happens if gate voltage of an ON scr is decreased?

25. fermi level change with temperature in n type semiconductor?

26. mosfet has threshold voltage 1v when n+ polysilicon is used in gate. what is
threshold voltage when polysilicon used is of n+ type?

27. simple ckts using zener diode.

28. what is the p+ substrate in an isolated pn junction ic connected to?

29. opamp circuit given. open loop gain=100. closed loop gain=?

30. which type of parameters( h/y/z) suitable in particular application?

31. given parallel LC ckt. find angle between currents in branches at resonance.

32. what is Q of series RLC ckt? (voltage gain/ admttance etc.)

33. resonant freq of parallel RLC ckt. ?

34. thin metal foil inserted between capacitor plates. foil connected to one plate.
change in capacitance?

35. ques on reflection of em wave at air= dielectric interface. dlc const=9

36. what is brewster's angle?

37. why microwave freq not used for ionospheric propagation?

38. uhf range?

39. freq range used in satellite comunication?

40. which ionospheric bands used for commercial purposes?

41. question on transmission line impedance matching?

42. flip- flop d, t 43. convert 32 k pulses to 1 hz pulses using decade counters etc

[Continue reading...]

Download SAIL Management Trainee Question Papers

Download SAIL Management Trainee Question Papers

Q.1) Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
1. India’s population is characterized by a high growth rate.
2. With the current growth rate it is likely to overtake China in the near future.
3. Out of every six persons of the World one is an Indian.
4. About 40% of the India’s population is below the poverty line level.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Q.2) In the Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh States, the joint ‘Rajghat River Valley Project’ is launched
on :
(A) Ken river (B) Son river
(C) Chambal river (D) Betwa river
Q.3) Which state in the country has the largest number of districts?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Uttar Pradesh
Q.4) Environment refers :
(A) As the natural world of land, water, air, plants and animals that exist around it.
(B) To the sum total of conditions which surround man at a given point of time.
(C) The interacting systems of physical, biological and cultural elements which are interlinked.
(D) All the above.
Q.5) The cells which have the capacity to divide and differentiate into any type of cells in the body are the
focus of research of several serious diseases are :
(A) Bud cells (B) Red cells
(C) Mesangial cells (D) Stem cells
Q.6) Environmental degradation means :
(A) Overall lowering of environmental qualities
(B) Adverse changes brought in by human activities
(C) Ecological imbalance because of ecological diversity
(D) All the above
Q.7) Which one of the following is known as ‘Satellite Town’?
(A) Moradabad (B) Hyderabad
(C) Ghaziabad (D) Ahmedabad
Q.8) Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of beginning?
(A) Brahmaputra and Ganga
(B) Tapi and Beas
(C) Brahmaputra and Indus
(D) Indua and Ganga
Q.9) The local time of a place is 6.00 a.m. when the Greenwitch Mean Time (GMT) is 3.00 a.m. What is
the longitude of the place?
(A) 450 W (B) 450 E
(C) 1200 E (D) 1200 W
Q.10) In which State of India is the maximum area irrigated by Tube-wells?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Bihar
(C) Rajasthan (D) Uttar Pradesh
Q.11) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Haldia : Orissa
(B) Jamnagar : Maharashtra
(C) Numaligarh : Gujarat
(D) Panangudi : Tamil Nadu
Q.12) Which one of the following Indian rivers forms as estuary?
(A) Godavari (B) Kaveri
(C) Tapi (D) Mahanadi
Q.13) Which one of the following areas of India does not come under the zone of high seismic intensity?
(A) Uttaranchal (B) Karanatak Plateau
(C) Kachch (D) Himachal Pradesh
Q.14) Which of the following Indian island lies between India and Sir Lanka?
(A) Elephanta (B) Nicobar
(C) Rameshwaram (D) Salsette
Q.15) In which state do the Monsoons arrive first?
(A) Assam (B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra (D) Kerala
Q.16) Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to declare a geographic area as a scheduled
area?
(A) Governor (B) Chief Minister
(C) Prime Minister (D) President
Q.17) The World’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in :
(A) Colombia (B) India
(C) Nepal (D) Switzerland
Q.18) In U.P., the district with the highest literacy percentage is :
(A) Auraiya (B) Ghaziabad
(C) Etawah (D) Allahabad
Q.19) A memorandum of understanding for India’s first river linking project has been signed between two
states linking two rivers. The states and the rivers concerned are :
List-I List-II
(A) Punjab and Rajasthan : Beas and Banas
(B) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh : Ken and Betwa
(C) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu : Krishna and Kaveri
(D) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar : Gomti and Sharda
Q.20) Consider the following statements about Uttar Pradesh :
1. Geographical area of UP is about 2,41,000 sq kms.
2. Sex ratio in UP as per 2001 census was 933 females per 1000 males.
3. UP has 17 Revenue Divisions.
4. Literacy percentage in UP as per 2001 census was 60.1.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only
Q.21) Consider the following statements about Uttar Pradesh :
1. Literacy percentage as per 2001 census is 56.3.
2. The density of population is 690 per square km.
3. The most populous district is Kanpur Nagar.
4. The largest population of scheduled castes is in district Sitapur.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) All the four
Q.22) Consider the following statements :
1. According to a survey conducted by Uttar Pradesh Department recently, Lucknow has been found
to be most developed.
2. As per recent study conducted in 20 states by the ‘Centre for Media Studies’, corruption in 2005 in
India is less than what it was in 2002.
3. As per target set for Bharat Nirman Yojna, houses to be constructed for the rural poor would not
even meet 50% of the shortage of rural houses.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) All the three
Q.23) Special Economic Zones are being set up in UP at :
(A) Agra, Kanpur and Noida
(B) Agra, Kanpur and Greater Noida
(C) Meerut, Moradabad, Kanpur and Noida
(D) Moradabad, Kanpur, Noida and Greater Noida
Q.24) The ancient site where the full text of the Mahabarat was delivered orally to a congregation of 60,000
sages is :
(A) Ahichatra (B) Hastinapur
(C) Kampilya (D) Naimisharanya
Q.25) The quaintest relic of Chunar Fort is the shrine of :
(A) Adi Shankaracharya (B) Bhartruhari
(C) Chaitanya (D) Ramananda
ANSWERS
1. (A)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
6. (D)
7. (C)
8. (C)
9. (B)
10. (D)
11. (D)
12. (C)
13. (B)
14. (C)
15. (D)
16. (D)
17. (B)
18. (A)
19. (B)
20. (B)
21. (D)
22. (A)
23. (B)
24. (D)
25. (B

[Continue reading...]

SAIL Trainee Question Papers download www.sail.co.in

SAILTrainee Question Papers download www.sail.co.in

Q.1) Consider the following statements :
1. The International Badminton Federation is located in Kualalumpur.
2. The Federation has decided in favour of India as the host for 2009 World Badminton
Championship.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.2) Consider the following statements about one of India’s leading batsman :
1. He has scored now more than 8000 runs in Test Matches.
2. He has made four successive centuries.
3. He has made five Test double hundreds.
4. He is credited with most catches by an Indian player.
Which is he?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Rahul Dravid (D) Saurav Ganguly
Q.3) Consider the following statements :
1. The 93rd Indian Science Congress was held at Hyderabad (A.P.) in January 2006.
2. Dr. M.S.Swaminathan was the recipient of the India Science Award 2004 at the Congress.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.4) Which South American Country has elected a Leftist Leader as its President for the first time in the
180 year old history of South America?
(A) Venezuela (B) Argentina
(C) Uruguay (D) Bolivia
Q.5) President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam visited some countries; one of them happens to be country visited by
any President of India for the first time. Which one of these is that country?
(A) Mauritius (B) South Africa
(C) Myanmar (D) None of these
Q.6) Chlorophull is normally found in:
(1) Green leaves (2) Tree bark
(3) Kidney (4) Blood
Q.7) The first woman IPS officer:
(1) Kanchan Bhattacharya (2) Priti Jain
(3) Suman Bhardwaj (4) Kiran Bedi
Q.8) Through which State run the ‘Aravalli’ mountains?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan
Q.9) The captain of the victorious Italian team in the FIFA World Cup 2006 was:
(1) Marco Materazzi (2) Fabio Cannavaro
(3) Gianluigi Buffon (4) Salvatore Schillaci
Q.10) While sowing seeds the fertilizer commonly used contains:
(1) Nitrates (2) Potash
(3) Phosphorus (4) Calcium
Q.11) Where are copper, gold, iron and coal respectively found in India?
(1) Kollar, Khetri, Kudremukh, Jharia
(2) Jharia, Kollar, Kudremukh, Khetri
(3) Kudremukh, Jharia, Kollar, Khetri
(4) Khetri, Kollar, Kudremukh, Jharia
Q.12) What is washing power?
(1) Sodium chloride (2) Hydrated sodium carbonate
(3) Sodium dicarbonate (4) Calcium carbonate
Q.13) The need for effective corporate governance and independent regulatory authorities was highlighted
by the scam involving which of the following multinational corporation/s?
(1) Enron (2) World Com
(3) Xerox (4) All of the above
Q.14) ‘Carbon dioxide cycle’ implies that:
(1) carbon dioxide moves in the air in a cycle
(2) the carbon dioxide structure is cyclic
(3) carbon dioxide consumes oxygen
(4) oxygen is changed into carbon dioxide by respiration of human beings and then to oxygen and
carbon by green plants
Q.15) Light from the nearest star reaches the earth in
(1) 4.3 seconds (2) 4.3 minutes
(3) 43 minutes (4) 4.3 years
Q.16) Usual Status (US) unemployment is calculated with reference to a period of:
(1) one year (2) indefinite
(3) one month (4) one week
Q.17) An iron hammer, lying in the sum appears much hotter than its wooden handle because:
(1) iron is at a higher temperature
(2) iron is darker than wood
(3) iron absorbs more heat
(4) iron is a good conductor of heat
Q.18) It is not advisable of sleep under a tree at night because trees release:
(1) carbon dioxide (2) oxygen
(3) carbon monoxide (4) sulphur dioxide
Q.19) In the later vedic pantheon, what was the order of gods in accordance with their importance?
a. Indra b. Vishnu
c. Prajapati d. Rudra
(1) cdba (2) cbda
(3) bcda (4) bacd
Q.20) A solution with pH=2 is more acidic than a solution of pH=6 by a factor of:
(1) 4 (2) 12
(3) 400 (4) 1000
Q.21) Australasia or Oceania comprises of:
a. Australia b. New Zealand
c. New Guinea d. Pacific Islands
e. Tasmania
(1) a, b and d (2) a, b and e
(3) a, b, c and d (4) a, b, c, d and e
Q.22) The smallest possible unit of a chemical compound is:
(1) atom (2) electron
(3) proton (4) molecule
Q.23) Hypo, used in photography, is chemically:
(1) silver bromide (2) sodium thiosulphate
(3) sodium phosphate (4) silver nitrate
Q.24) Emeralds are made up of:
(1) carbon (2) calcium
(3) beryllium (4) iron
Q.25) Anaemia occurs due to the lack of:
(1) iodine (2) calcium
(3) potassium (4) iron
ANSWERS
1. (B)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (D)
5. (C)
6. (1)
7. (4)
8. (4)
9. (2)
10. (1)
11. (4)
12. (2)
13. (4)
14. (4)
15. (4)
16. (1)
17. (4)
18. (1)
19. (1)
20. (4)
21. (4)
22. (4)
23. (2)
24. (3)
25. (4)

[Continue reading...]

Sail Previous Year Placement Question Papers Free Downloadwww.sail.co.in

Sail Previous Year Placement Question Papers Free Download www.sail.co.in

1.where does a body have least weight?

a) at the equator
b) at the poles
c) at earth's center
d) none of these
2. what is the millman's theorem?
3. what happens if a dc motor is fed an ac signal?
4. calculate electron mobility.
5. power MOSFET is voltage controlled or current controlled?
6. if u want a 640 k RAM, what specification should u specify in the drive?
7. max efficiency of a class a amplifier?
8.what r resistors in IC made of?
9. 6 girls and 6 bos sitting randomly in a line. what probability of girls being
together?
10.what is the prob. of two friends having birthdays in same month?
11. (D^2 + 4)y= kx what if PI?
12. lim x-infinity sinx/x
13. express x/(x+1) as taylor's series
14.principle of jet engine
15. why hydraulic systems used ina aircrafts instead of electrical?
16. steel + ? = corrosion-resistant material?
17. what happens to speed of em wave as frequency increases?
18. which char. of em wave does not change when it travels from one mdium to
another?
19. circuit given. find attenuation in db.
20. circuit given. how much feedback?
21. (s-1)/(s+1) is high pass filter/ low pass filter?
22. fastest logic family among rtl, dtl, ttl?
23. in common emitter config. change in iC on changing vBE?
24. what happens if gate voltage of an ON scr is decreased?
25. fermi level change with temperature in n type semiconductor?
26. mosfet has threshold voltage 1v when n+ polysilicon is used in gate. what is
threshold voltage when polysilicon used is of n+ type?
27. simple ckts using zener diode.
28. what is the p+ substrate in an isolated pn junction ic connected to?
29. opamp circuit given. open loop gain=100. closed loop gain=?
30. which type of parameters( h/y/z) suitable in particular application?
31. given parallel LC ckt. find angle between currents in branches at resonance.
32. what is Q of series RLC ckt? (voltage gain/ admttance etc.)
33. resonant freq of parallel RLC ckt. ?
34. thin metal foil inserted between capacitor plates. foil connected to one plate.
change in capacitance?
35. ques on reflection of em wave at air= dielectric interface. dlc const=9
36. what is brewster's angle?
37. why microwave freq not used for ionospheric propagation?
38. uhf range?
39. freq range used in satellite comunication?
40. which ionospheric bands used for commercial purposes?
41. question on transmission line impedance matching?
42. flip- flop d, t 43. convert 32 k pulses to 1 hz pulses using decade counters etc



Q.1.Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is

5.7 mH
5.85 mH
6 mH
6.15 mH.

Q.2.In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0,

I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses
I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices.
arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.

Q.3.When 2-port networks are connected in parallel, which parameters convenient to use

inverse hybrid
open circuit impedance
short circuit admittance
transmission

Q.4.The number of comparators needed in a 4-bit flash type ADC is

32
8
14
15

Q.5.Line imperfection in a crystal is called

Schottky defect
Frenkel defect
edge dislocation
Miller defect.

Q.6.The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly

250 - 300 MHz
150 - 200 MHz
90 - 105 MHz
30 - 70 MHz

Q.7.A 10 MHz square wave clocks a 5-bit ripple counter. The frequency of third flip-flop’s output would be

2
1
2.5
1.25

Q.8.Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reversal without a transformer

Buck regulator
Boost regulator
Buck-boost regulator
Cuk regulator

Q.9.The polarization required in ground wave propagation is

Horizontal (linear)
vertical (linear)
Circular
Elliptical

Q.10.If the noise figure of a receiver is 1.6, its equivalent noise temperature is

464.00 K
174.00 K
108.75 K
181.25 K

Q.11.The minimum value of the life of a transistor to be used in three section R-C phase shift oscillator is

54.4
44
29
32

Q.12.Multicavity Klystron

is not a microwave device
is not a good low level amplifier because of noise
is not suitable to pulse operation
has a high repeller voltage to insure small transit time

Q.13.The value of M in the end will be
Do 100 I = 1, 2
DO 200 J = 1, 2
M = M + I + J
200 CONTINUE
100 CONTINUE
STOP
END

10
11
12
14

Q.14.In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of

integrator
differentiator
sweep credit
sync separator

Q.15.Fourier’s series expansion of an odd periodic function contains

sine terms only
cosine terms only
Both A and B
None of the above

16. The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor,
Memory address in Hex Instruction
2000 LXI SP, 1000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D
2005 CALL 2050
2008 POP 2050
2009 HIT
As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains ………, and the stack pointer contains ……..

2050, OFFC
2251, OFFC
1025, OCCF
1025, OCCF

Q.17.200 MHz may be classified as

VHF
SHF
UHF
EHF

Q.18.The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to :

linear time variant systems
non-linear time variant systems
linear time invariant systems
non-linear time invariant systems.

Q.19.Dislocations in materials are

point defect
line defect
planer defect
surface defects.

Q.20.The binary representation of 5.375 is

111.1011
101.1101
101.011
111.001

Q.21.Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages?

Hot wire instrument
Electrostatic voltmeter
Moving coil voltmeter
Moving iron voltmeter.

Q.22.For a LC parallel circuit at resonance, all the statements given below are correct except

the line current is maximum at resonance
the branch currents at resonance are equal
the admittance is minimum at resonance
the angle between the branch current is 180oC at resonance.

Q.23.The Taylor series expansion of the function F(x) = x/(1+x), around x=0 is

x+x2+x3+x4+…….
x+x2+x3+x4+…….
2x+42+8x3+16x4+…….
x-x2+x3-x4+…….

Q.24.The mobility of electron in copper is :Given atomic weight = 63.54, density = 8.96 gm/cc, resistivity = 1.7×10–6 W-cm, Avogadro’s number = 6.025 ×1023

30 cm2/V-5
43.28 cm2/V-5
50 cm2/V-5
data not sufficient

Q.25.If a square wave voltage having 5V average value is applied to a low pass filter, then average value of output is

10 V
2.5 V
5 V
0 V

Q.26.Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by

temperature
pressure
Composition
all of the above.

Q.27.In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during

equalizing pulse
retrace interval between each line
retrace period of vertical line
none of the above.

Q.28.The capacity of a channel is

number of digits used in coding
volume of information it can take
maximum rate of information transmission
bandwidth required for information

Q.29.Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This due to

Ionospheric reflection
Faraday rotation
Ducting
Ionospheric scatter.

Q.30.The function of diplexers bridge in a TV transmitter is

to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter
to increase the bandwidth
to increase the power output
to increase the efficiency of transmission.

[Continue reading...]

SAIL Question Papers Answers Past Years www.sail.co.in

SAIL Question Papers Answers Past Years www.sail.co.in

what is the main different between distribution transformer and power transformer ?
where manning formula used
what is the differance between item category amd material type ?
When a square wave is applied to primary of a transformer then what will be output
wave form of secondary ?
what are the warehouse reserch? and pocess of warehouse research?
What is the rating of HT SUBSTATION and LT SUBSTATION?
which of the following rivers does not form any delta T ITS MOUTH? Cauvery,Mahanadi, Godawari, Tapti
How much is the minimum marks for CIVIL judge interview in MPPSC. where i can get rules in this regard documented?
what are the uses of graphite electrode in various field.
what is the use of "fg" command ?
what are %TYPE and %ROWTYPE? what is the difference?

Q.1.Two 100-W, 200-V lamps are connected in series across a 200-V supply. The total power consumed by each lamp will be _____ watts.

200
100
50
25

Q.2.The material used for fuse must have

low melting point and low specific resistance
high melting point and low specific resistance
low melting point and high specific resistance
none of these

Q.3.The purpose of introducing reactor in the ignition circuit of mercury are rectifier is to limit the

voltage of the circuit
rate of change of flux in the circuit
current in the circuit
rate of change of current in the circuit

Q.4.Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high

a resistance
inductance
capacitance
none of these

Q.5.The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is ______ohm.

75
600
500
250

Q.6.In the case of a lossy capacitor, series equivalent resistance value will be

small
large
very small
none of these

Q.7.Time constant of an R-C circuit increases if the value of resistance is

decreased
increased
neither (a) nor (b)
either (a) or (b)

Q.8.Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a

capacitor in parallel with contacts
resistance in the line
capacitor in series with contacts
none of these

Q.9.dBm is a

ratio of power
unit of power
unit of voltage
none of these

Q.10.Decibel is a unit of

frequency
impedance
power ratio
none of these

Q.11.The absolute unit of resistance is of the dimension of

velocity
length
acceleration
none of these

Q.12.The absolute unit of inductance is of the dimension of

time
length
mass
none of these

Q.13.The applied voltage from the circuit being checked is disconnected when an ohmmeter is used because

the current will decrease the resistance
the ohmmeter has its own battery
no current is needed for meter movements
none of these

Q.14.An accurate voltmeter must have an internal impedance of

very high value
very low value
low value
none of these

Q.15.A moving –coil instrument can be used to measure

high frequency a.c.
low frequency a.c
both d.c. and a.c
direct current

Q.16.The voltage drop across the moving coil of a 50-µ A (f.s) PMMC meter at full- scale deflection is ---- the voltage drop across that of a 1-mA (fs) PMMC meter at full-scale deflection.

less than
approximately equal to
greater than
none of these

Q.17.Voltage stress is maximum in a cable at the surface of the

insulator
sheath
conductor
none of these

Q.18.The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on

mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
mutual inductance between two coils only
self inductances of the two coils only
none of these

Q.19.The location of lightning arrestor is

away from the transformer
near the transformer
near the circuit breaker
none of these

Q.20.A conductor of length 1 meter moves at rt. angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 Wb/m2 with a velocity of 25 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be ----- volt.

75
25
50
100

Q.21.In electrical machines, laminated cores are used with a view to reducing

eddy current loss

hysteresis loss

Q.22.A battery

always delivers power
always absorbs power
absorbs power when the internal resistance is non-zero but delivers power when the internal resistance is zero
can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to which it is connected

Q.23.Decibel is a

unit of voltage
unit of power
ratio of power
none of these

Q.24.Deflection of pointer of a permanent-magnet moving-coil meter for fixed current is _______ flux density in the airgap between magnetic pole shoes and coil.

independent of
directly proportional to
inversely proportional to
none of these

Q.25.A moving-iron meter is useful for voltage measurement at _______frequencies.

high
low
very high
none of these

Q.26.A thermocouple instruments would be used to measure alternating current only?

low
very low
high
none of these

Q.27.Which of the following instruments will be used to measure alternating current only?

moving – iron (attraction-types) ammeter
moving – iron voltmeter
permanent-magnet type ammeter
induction-type ammeter

Q.28.A milliammeter can be used

only as an ammeter
as a voltmeter
both as voltmeter and ammeter
none of these

Q.29.To measure the e.m.f. of a Weston standard cell, one would use a/an

electrostatic voltmeter
hot-wire voltmeter
galvanometer
potentiometer–Answer

Q.30.Deflection sensitivity of deflecting plates of cathode ray tube ____ the distance between deflection pates.

is inversely proportional to
is directly proportional to
does not depend on
none of these

Q.31.Deflection sensitivity of deflecting plates of a cathode ray tube ___the accelerating anode (A3) voltage.

is inversely proportional to
is directly proportional to
does not depend on
none of these

Q.32.A moving – coil instrument can be used to measure

direct current
alternating current
both direct current and alternating current
none of these

Q.33.The frequency stability of a crystal oscillator depends upon

tuned circuit
crystal
crystal as well as the tuned circuit
none of these

Q.34.Hay bridge is usually used for measuring

resistance
capacitance
inductance
none of these

Q.35.Schering bridge is used for measuring

capacitance
inductance
frequency
none of these

Q.36.The Wien’s bridge is particularly useful for measuring frequencies of _______value.

low
very high
high
very low

Q.37.Impedance relay is used to protect

line within a particular zone
line beyond a particular zone
the whole transmission system
none of these

Q.38.Buchholz relay is used in ______ protection.

line
generator
transformer
none of these

Q.39.Kirchhoff’s voltage law is not valid for a non-linear network.

True
False

Q.40.If a piece of metal wire is stretched, its resistance will increase.

True
False

Q.41.In mesh analysis of a network, all the mesh currents must necessarily be either clock-wise or anticlock-wise.

True
False

Q.42.An uncharged capacitor is connected across a charged one.There will flow an impulsive current through the circuit.

True
False

Q.43.If R, L and C denote resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively, the quantity RC has the same dimensions as that of R/L.

True
False

Q.44.If R, L and C denote resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively, then the quantity CR2 has the dimensions, of L.

True
False

Q.45.A battery will not cause any current to flow, when it is connected across a pure capacitor, in the steady state even if the capacitor value varies with time.

True
False

Q.46.When two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in series, the effective capacitance is C1+C2

True
False

Q.47.The flux linked with a coil of inductance l carrying a current i is ddt(Li).

True
False

Q.48.When one wants to connect two batteries in parallel to draw larger current than what can be supplied by one battery, it suffices to ensure that their e.m.f.s. are equal.

True
False

Q.49.An ideal battery can supply infinite current

True
False

Q.50.1 GHz means 100 Hz.

True
False

[Continue reading...]

SAIL Question Papers, SAIL Examination Written Test Question Papers

saSAIL Question Papers, SAIL Examination Written Test Question Papers

Q.1.Loss of heat from unlagged steam pipe to the ambient air is by

conduction
convection
radiation
all (a), (b) & (c)

Q.2.Fourier's law applies to the heat transfer by

convection
radiation
conduction
all (a), (b) & (c)

Q.3.Fourier's law of heat conduction applies to .......... surfaces.

isothermal
non-isothermal
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) and (b)

Q. 4.Unsteady state heat conduction occurs, when

temperature distribution is independent of time
temperature distribution is dependent on time
heat flows in one direction only
three dimensional heat flow is concerned

Q.5.What is the unit of thermal conductivity ?

Kcal/hr.m2 0C
Kcal/hr.m. 0C
Kcal/hr.m
Kcal/hr.0C

Q.6.The unit of heat transfer co-efficient is

BTU/hr.ft2 0F
BTU/hr.0F.ft.
BTU/hr.0F
BTU/hr.ft

Q.7.Which of the following is correct ?

Rate = Driving force * Resistance
Driving force = Rate * Resistance
Resistance = Driving force * Rate
Rate = Resistance/Driving force

Q.8.An insulator should have

low thermal conductivity
high thermal conductivity
less resistance to heat flow
a porous structure

Q.9.Heat flux through several resistance in series in analogous to the current flowing through several

resistances in parallel
capacitors in series
resistances in series
none of these

Q.10.The overall resistance for heat transfer through a series of flat resistance, is the ..... of the resistances.

average
geometric mean
product
sum

Q.11.Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity ?

Brick
Air
Water
Silver

Q.12.Which area is used in case of heat flow by conduction through a cylinder ?

Logarithmic mean area
Arithmetic mean area
Geometric mean area
None of these

Q.13.For heat flow through very thick walled cylinder, use ............ mean radius.

arithmetic
logarithmic
geometric
either (a) or (c)

Q.14.What is the logarithmic mean of r1 and r2 ?

r1 - r2/ln r1/r2
r1 - r2/ln r2/r1
r2 - r1/ln r1/r2
r1 - r2/ - ln r1/r2

Q.15.What is Nusselt number ?

Cp.μ/k
hD/k
h.Cp/μ
Cp.μ/h

Q.16.Prandtl number is given by

Cp.μ/a
hD/k
Cp.μ/k
μ/h.Cp

Q.17.Thermal diffusivity is given by

k/r.Cp
r.Cp/k
Cp.μ/a
μ/hCp

Q.18.Grashhoff number is given by

g D3. β .∆ tr2/μ2
g D2β∆tr/μ2
g D2β∆tr2μ
g D3β∆tr2/μ

Q.19.If h1=inner film co-efficient & h2=outer film co-efficient, then the overall heat transfer co-efficient is

always less than h1
always between h1 and h2
always higher than h2
dependent on metal resistance

Q.20.Gratez number is give by

mCp/kL
kL/mCp
mCp/kμ
kL/mCp

Q.21.In the equation Q= UA ∆t ; ∆t is

geometric mean temperature difference.
arithmetic mean temperature difference.
logarithmic mean temperature difference.
the difference of average bulk temperatures of hot and cold fluids.

Q.22.Peclet number (Pe) is given by

Pe = Re.Pr
Pe = Re/Pr
Pe = Pr/Re
Pe = Nu.Re

Q.23.Prandtl number is the reciprocal of

Thermal diffusivity/ Momentum diffusivity
Thermal diffusivity x Momentum
Thermal diffusivity x Mass diffusivity
Mass diffusivity x Momentum diffusivity

Q.24.Maximum heat transfer rate is obtained in .......... flow.

laminar
turbulent
creeping
transition region

Q.25.Heat flux is the time rate of heat transfer per unit

length
area
volume
none of these

Q.26.Nusselt number is the ratio of the

temperature gradient of the wall to that across the entire pipe.
temperature difference to the temperature gradient at the wall.
heat flux at the wall to that across the entire pipe.
none of these

Q.27.Fouling factor

is a dimensionless quantity.
does not provide a safety factor for design.
accounts for additional resistances to heat flow.
none of these.

Q.28.Viscosity of gases ....... with increase in temperature.

increase very rapidly
increase slowly
decrease slowly
remain unaffected

Q.29.Heat transfer co-efficient (h1) for liquids increases with

increasing temperature
decreasing temperature
decreasing Reynolds number
none of these

Q.30.At what value of Prandtl number, conduction is negligible in the turbulent core of a fluid flowing through a heated pipe ?

0.5
< 0.5
> 0.6
< 0.1

Q.31.At Pr > 1, conduction in an ordinary fluid flowing through a heated pipe is limited to the

buffer zone
turbulent core
both (a) and (b)
viscous sub-layer

Q.32.Conduction occurs in the buffer zone for a fluid flowing through a heated pipe, only when Prandtl number is

0.1
> 1
< 1
1

Q.33.Natural convection is characterized by

Grashhoff number
Peclet number
Reynolds number
Prandtl number

Q.34.Which of the following is unimportant in forced convection ?

Reynolds number
Prandtl number
Grashhoff number
none of these

Q.35.In fored convection, the heat transfer depends on

Re, Pr
Re, Gr
mainly Gr
Re only

Q.36.The characteristic dimensionless groups for heat transfer to a fluid flowing through a pipe in laminar flow are

Re. Gz
Nu, Pr
Nu, Pr, Re
Nu, Gz

Q.37.At what value of Prandtl number, the hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layers of a fluid flowing over a heated plate will be identical ?

1
< 1
> 1
none of these

Q.38.Reynold's analogy states that

St = f/2
St = f/4
St = 4f
St = f1/2

Q.39.For what value of Prandtl number, St = f/2 ?

1.5
1
> 1
< 1

Q.40.Which has the lowest Prandtl number ?

Liquid metal
Aqueous solution
Water
Lube oil

Q.41.Dietus-Boelter equation used for the determination of heat transfer co-efficient is valid

for fluids in laminar flow
for fluids in tubulent flow
when Grashhoff number is very important
for liquid metals

Q.42.For what value of Prandtl number, the Colburn analogy is valid ?

0.06 to 120
0.6 to 120
1 to 103
1 to 50

Q.43.Pick out the correct equation.

jH = (St) (Pr)2/3 = f/2
jH = (St) (Pr)1/3 = f/2
jH = (St)2/3 (Pr) = f/2
jH = (St)1/3 (Pr) = f/2

Q.44.Choose the correct equation.

Nu = (Re) (Pr) (Gz)
Nu = (Re) (Pr) (St)
Nu = (Re) (Pr)
Nu = (Pr) (St)

Q.45.For a liquid in laminar flow through a very long tube, when the exit fluid temperature approaches the wall temperature, the equation to be used is

Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 . Pr0.4
Nu = p/2 Gz
Nu = 2/p Gz
Nu = 2Gz0.5

Q.46.If average heat transfer co-efficient is ha and the local coefficient at the end of the plate is hl then in case of heat transfer to a fluid flowing over a flat plate, heated over its entire length

ha = hl
ha = 2 hl
ha = 0.5 hl
ha = 0.75 hl

Q.47.When does the heat generated by fluid friction becomes appreciable compared to the heat transferred between the fluids ?

At high fluid velocity
At low velocity
When fluid flows past a smooth surface
None of these

Q.48.The heat transfer co-efficient in film type condensation is ....... that for dropwise condensation.

greater than
lower than
is same as
half

Q.49.Prandtl number is the ratio of

momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity
momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity

Q.50.All analogy equations connecting friction factor and heat transfer co-efficient apply only to

wall or skin friction
form friction
both (a) and (b)
turbulent flow

[Continue reading...]

SAIL EXAM PAPERS SAIL MANAGMENT TRAINEE Question Papers www.sail.co.in

SAIL EXAM PAPERS  SAIL MANAGMENT TRAINEE  Question Papers www.sail.co.in

1.where does a body have least weight?
a) at the equator

b) at the poles
c) at earth’s center
d) none of these

2. what is the millman’s theorem?

3. what happens if a dc motor is fed an ac signal?

4. calculate electron mobility.

5. power MOSFET is voltage controlled or current controlled?

6. if u want a 640 k RAM, what specification should u specify in the drive?

7. max efficiency of a class a amplifier?

8.what r resistors in IC made of?

9. 6 girls and 6 bos sitting randomly in a line. what probability of girls being together?

10.what is the prob. of two friends having birthdays in same month?

11. (D^2 + 4)y= kx what if PI?

12. lim x-infinity sinx/x

13. express x/(x+1) as taylor’s series

14.principle of jet engine

15. why hydraulic systems used ina aircrafts instead of electrical?

16. steel + ? = corrosion-resistant material?

17. what happens to speed of em wave as frequency increases?

18. which char. of em wave does not change when it travels from one mdium to another?

19. circuit given. find attenuation in db.

20. circuit given. how much feedback?

21. (s-1)/(s+1) is high pass filter/ low pass filter?

22. fastest logic family among rtl, dtl, ttl?

23. in common emitter config. change in iC on changing vBE?

24. what happens if gate voltage of an ON scr is decreased?

25. fermi level change with temperature in n type semiconductor?

26. mosfet has threshold voltage 1v when n+ polysilicon is used in gate. what is threshold voltage when polysilicon used is of n+ type?

27. simple ckts using zener diode.

28. what is the p+ substrate in an isolated pn junction ic connected to?

29. opamp circuit given. open loop gain=100. closed loop gain=?

30. which type of parameters( h/y/z) suitable in particular application?

31. given parallel LC ckt. find angle between currents in branches at resonance.

32. what is Q of series RLC ckt? (voltage gain/ admttance etc.)

33. resonant freq of parallel RLC ckt. ?

34. thin metal foil inserted between capacitor plates. foil connected to one plate. change in capacitance?

35. ques on reflection of em wave at air= dielectric interface. dlc const=9

36. what is brewster’s angle?

37. why microwave freq not used for ionospheric propagation?

38. uhf range?

39. freq range used in satellite comunication?

40. which ionospheric bands used for commercial purposes?

41. question on transmission line impedance matching?

42. flip- flop d, t 43. convert 32 k pulses to 1 hz pulses using decade counters etc.

44. ques on sets and relations

45. integration

46. rank of matrix

[Continue reading...]

SAIL Previous Years Solved Question Papers Download

SAIL Previous Years Solved Question Papers Download

Q.1) ‘Threat of global warming’ is increasing due to increasing concentration of:
(A) Ozone (B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide (D) Carbon dioxide
Q.2) When a body is taken from the earth to the moon :
(A) Its weight increases
(B) Its weight decreases
(C) Its weight remains unchanged
(D) It becomes completely weightless
Q.3) Expansion during heating :
(A) Occurs only in solid
(B) Increases the weight of the material
(C) Decreases the density of the material
(D) Occurs at the same rate for all liquids and solids
Q.4) The Finance Commission is primarily concerned with recommending to the President about :
(A) The principle governing grants-in-aid to be given to the States
(B) Distributing the net proceeds of the taxes between the Centre and the States
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.5) The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International
Treaties :
(A) With the consent of all the States
(B) With the consent of majority of States
(C) With the consent of the State concerned
(D) Without the consent of any State
Q.6) Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum
period of :
(A) One month (B) One year
(C) Seven days (D) Fourteen days
Q.7) The First day session of Indian Constituent Assembly was chaired by :
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar (D) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
Q.8) Which one of the following is not a department in the Ministry of Human Resource Development?
(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(C) Department of Technical Education
(D) Department of Woman and Child Development
Q.9) Who is known a the first Law Officer of India?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Law Minister of India
(C) Solicitor General of India
(D) Law Secretary
Q.10) The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President. He can be removed :
(A) By the President
(B) On an address from both Houses of Parliament
(C) By the Supreme Court
(D) On the recommendation of the President by the Supreme Court
Q.11) Nathu La Pass is situated in which state?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Assam
(C) Meghalaya (D) Sikkim
Q.12) Who will decide the Office of Profit?
(A) President and Governor
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Union Public Service Commission
Q.13) To be officially recognized by the Speaker of Lok Sabha as an Opposition Group, a party or Coalition
of Parties must have at least :
(A) 50 members (B) 60 members
(C) 80 members (D) 1
3
of total members of the Lok Sabha
Q.14) Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) Prohibition of liquor
(B) Right to work
(C) Equal wage for equal work
(D) Right to information
Q.15) Right to Education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years is :
(A) Included in the Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) A Fundamental Right
(C) A Statutory Right
(D) None of the above
Q.16) How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in India so far?
(A) 5 times (B) 4 times
(C) Once (D) Never
Q.17) The annual growth rate of the Indian Economy at 1999-2000 prices during 2005-2006 has been
estimated between :
(A) 8 to 9 per cent (B) 7 to 8 per cent
(C) 6 to 7 per cent (D) 5 to 6 per cent
Q.18) Which one of the following motions can the Council of Ministers in India move?
(A) No Confidence Motion
(B) Censure Motion
(C) Adjournment Motion
(D) Confidence Motion
Q.19) Which one of the following on the Consolidated Fund of India?
(A) Salary and allowances of the President of India.
(B) Salary and allowances of the Vice President of India.
(C) Salary and allowances of the Justices of the Supreme Court of India.
(D) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Q.20) Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by the
Parliament?
(A) 14 days (B) 1 month
(C) 3 months (D) 6 months
Q.21) Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : Powers for conducting elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures in a free and
fair manner have been given to an independent body i.e. the Election Commission.
Reason (R) : Powers of removal of Election Commissioners is with the executive.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.22) Which one of the following is not an objective of fiscal policy of Indian Government?
(A) Full employment
(B) Price stability
(C) Regulation of inter-State trade
(D) Equitable distribution of wealth and income.
Q.23) Hindu Rate of growth refers to the rate of growth of :
(A) GDP (B) Population
(C) Foodgrains (D) Per capita income
Q.24) As per recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission, percentage share of States of the
shareable central taxes is?
(A) 28.5 (B) 29.5
(C) 30.5 (D) 32.4
Q.25) In India, national income is estimated by :
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Central Statistical Organization
(C) Indian Statistical Institute
(D) National Sample Survey Organization
ANSWERS
1. (D)
2. (B)
3. (C)
4. (D)
5. (D)
6. (D)
7. (D)
8. (C)
9. (C)
10. (A)
11. (D)
12. (B)
13. (A)
14. (D)
15. (B)
16. (D)
17. (A)
18. (D)
19. (B)
20. (B)
21. (B)
22. (C)
23. (A)
24. (C)
25. (B)

[Continue reading...]

Download SAIL Management Trainee Old Question Papers

Download SAIL Management Trainee Old Question Papers

Q.1) Bharat Nirman Scheme of the UPA Government does not include :
(A) Rural Water Supply Project
(B) Irrigation Benefit Programme
(C) Rural Electrification
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
Q.2) Which one of the following committee recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the
small scale sector in industry?
(A) Abid Hussain Committee
(B) Narasimhan Committee
(C) Nayak Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
Q.3) In the last one decade which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct
Investment inflows into India?
(A) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(B) Services sector
(C) Food Processing
(D) Telecommunication
Q.4) Who formulates the monetary policy in India?
(A) SEBI (B) RBI
(C) Finance Ministry (D) Planning Commission
Q.5) The population of Uttar Pradesh has been rapidly growing during the last two decades because of :
(A) Increased literacy rate (B) Improvement in health and control of diseases
(C) Improved agriculture (D) Rapid urbanization
Q.6) Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Educated unemployment increases with high rate of economic growth.
Reason (R) : It happens only when there is lack of professional education.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.7) Six more Public Sector Undertakings have been accorded status of miniratna by Government of India
(September 2006). Choose the one which is not included amongst them from the following :
(A) Bharat Sanchar Nigam
(B) Indian Telephone Industries
(C) Hindustan Latex
(D) Rashtriya Ispat
Q.8) Consider according to Buddhism :
Assertion (A) : There is no rebirth.
Reason (R) : There is no soul.
Now select your answer from the following code :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.9) Which one of the following propounded that destiny determines everything, man is powerless?
(A) Jainas (B) Buddhists
(C) Ajivakas (D) Mimansakas
Q.10) Lord Buddha preached the following four noble truths. Put them in correct order using the code given
below :
(a) There is suffering.
(b) There is cessation of suffering.
(c) There is a path leading to the cessation of suffering.
(d) There is cause of suffering.
Codes :
(A) a, d, b, c
(B) a, d, c, b
(C) a, c, b, d
(D) a, b, d, c
Q.11) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was the disciple of :
(A) Sheikh Alauddin Sabir
(B) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(C) Baba Farid
(D) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi
Q.12) Which one of the following was favoured by Nehru but not favoured by Gandhiji?
(A) Truth (B) Non-violence
(C) Untouchability (D) Heavy industrialisation
Q.13) Consider :
Assertion (A) : Nehru had no regard for the Upanishads.
Reason (R) : His attitude was scientific.
Now select your answer from the following code :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.14) Ashtadhayi was written by :
(A) Vedavyas (B) Panini
(C) Shukadeva (D) Balmiki
Q.15) Adi Shankaracharya established four mathas. These mathas are situated at :
(A) Sringeri, Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayab
(B) Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayag, Kanchi
(C) Joshimath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri
(D) Puri, Sringeri, Dwarka, Varanasi
Q.16) Who was the founder of ‘Servants of India Society’?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Justice Ranade
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q.17) The third Sangam was held at :
(A) Arrikkamedu (B) Ernakulam
(C) Madurai (D) Tuticorin
Q.18) Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Satya Shodhak Samaj’?
(A) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar (B) Jyotiba Phule
(C) Narayan Guru (D) Ramaswamy Naicker
Q.19) Cotton for textile was first cultivated in :
(A) Egypt (B) Mesopotamia
(C) Central America (D) India
Q.20) Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Muhammad Tughlaq’s scheme of token currency was a failure.
Reason (R) : Muhammad Tughlaq had no proper control over the issuance of coins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Q.21) By which name was Chanakya known in his childhood?
(A) Ajaya (B) Chanakya
(C) Vishnugupta (D) Deogupta
Q.22) Rock cut architecture in Harapan culture context has been found at :
(A) Kalibangan (B) Dhaulabira
(C) Kotdiji (D) Amri
Q.23) Where was the first Madarsa set up by the British in India?
(A) Madras (B) Bombay
(C) Aligarh (D) Calcutta
Q.24) Who among the following Pakistani National was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian
Government?
(A) Liaqat Ali Khan
(B) M.A.Jinnah
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
Q.25) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Lachchu Maharaj 1. Dhrupad
(b) Fayyaz Khan 2. Ghazal
(c) Sidheshwari Devi 3. Kathak
(d) Talat Mehmood 4. Thumri
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
ANSWERS
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (B)
5. (D)
6. (A)
7. (B)
8. (D)
9. (C)
10. (A)
11. (C)
12. (D)
13. (D)
14. (B)
15. (C)
16. (D)
17. (C)
18. (B)
19. (D)
20. (A)
21. (C)
22. (B)
23. (D)
24. (C)
25. (B)

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